1. Oxytetracycline is contraindicated in

a. Young animals b. Pregnant animals c. Old animals d. a and b

  1. Pseudo cow pox lesions are characterized by

a. Pus b. Horse shoe shaped ring scab c. Blood oozing d. None

  1. Swine pox is

a. Malignant disease b. Benign disease c. Mixed disease d. None

  1. The viral disease of horses restricted to North and South Americas only

a. EIA b. Equine influenza c. Equine encephalomyelitis d. AHS

  1. The following pups are highly susceptible to canine distemper

a. Inadequate immunity b. Adequate immunity c. Vaccinated pups d. Sick pups

  1. Death of rabid dog is due to

a. Cardiac failure b. Respiratory failure c. Nervous system failure d. All

  1. The following species are resistant to FMD

a. Pigs b. Goats c. Sheep d. Horses

  1. The drug of choice in the treatment of wooden tongue is

a. Alincomycin b. Gentamicin c. Potassium iodide d. Tetracycline

  1. Vaginal mucus agglutination is useful to diagnose

a. Brcellosis b. Anthrax c. Erysepelosis d. Leptospirosis

  1. The following species is resistant to botulism

a. Cattle b. Horse c. Sheep d. Pigs

Presence of suspicious foreign material in the forestomach in post mortem in cattle is suggestive of

a. Botulism b. Anthrax c. Black leg d. None

  1. Trismus with restricted jaw movement, saw horse posture are characteristic symptoms of

a. Actinobacillosis b. Listeriosis c. Enteriotoxaemia d. Tetanus

  1. The vaccine inoculated in poultry birds on the day of hatching is

a. Avian leucosis complexb. Ranikhet disease c. Marek’s disease d. IBD

Development of pustular and scabby lesions on the muzzle and lips of sheep and goats are characteristic symptoms of

a. PPR b. RP c. Orf d. Bluetongue


  1. Transmission of encephalitic form of listeriosis occurs by

a. Ingestion of contaminated milk b. Infection of tooth cavity

c. Infection through naval d. None of the above

  1. Predilection site for Brucella abortus

a. Pregnant uterus b. Udder c. Testicles d. All of the above

  1. Bovine viral diarrhea virus is antigenically related to

a. Hog cholera & Border disease b. PPR & Measles

c. CD & Measels d. None of the above

  1. Death in puppies suffering for canine parvo virus infection are mainly due to

a. Severe dehydration b. Excessive blood loss c. Myocarditis d. None

  1. Tiger heart condition is observed in

a. TB b. JD c. FMD d. None

  1. The type of New castle disease virus is most virulent

a. Velogenic b. Mesogenic c. Lentogenic d. None

  1. Shipping fever in cattle is caused by

a. Pasteurella haemolytica b. Pasteurella multocida

c. Mycoplasma mycoides d. Chlymydia psittaci

  1. Necrotizing myositis is the main pathogenesis found in following disease

a. Brucellosis b. FMD c. BQ d. Tetanus

  1. The allergic test conducted on horse for the diagnosis of glanders is called

a. Strauss reaction b. Mallein test c. Johnin test d. Coggin’s test

  1. Fowl typhoid in poultry is caused by

a. Pasteurella multocida b. Salmonella typhimurium

c. Salmonella gallinarium d. Salmonella pullorum

  1. Gold standard serological test used for diagnosis of leptospirosis is

a. RPAT b. MAT c. AGPT d. HAT

  1. The chewing gum type of seizures is classical nervous sign shown in dogs affected with

a. ICH b. Canine parvoviral gastroenteritis c. Rabies d. CD

  1. Abortion is one of the predominant clinical sign in following equine disease

a. EIA b. Equine influenza c. Equine viral rhinopneumonitis d. AHS

  1. The following disease cause immune suppression in affected chickens

a. Avian encephalomyelitis b. IBD c. ILT d. Avian influenza

The most commonly conducted serological test for detection of antibodies in chickens vaccinated against ND is

a. HAT b. HIT c. CFT d. Indirect FAT


  1. PPR disease is more severe and cause high mortality in

a. Cattle b. Buffales c. Goats d. Sheep

  1. Rabies inclusion bodies

a. Bollinger bodies b. LCL bodies c. Negribodies d.Koch blue bodies

  1. Biological vector of bluetongue virus

a. Mosquitoes b. Ticks c. Fles d. Culicoides

  1. Epitheliotropic virus is

a. Rabies b. FMD c. Pox d. Smedi virus

  1. Single intradermal test is performed to diagnose

a. IBR b. BVD c. RP d. JD

  1. Tarry coloured blood

a. Canine parvoviral infection b. Anthrax c. Clostridial infection d. RP

  1. Hog cholera is disease of the following animal

a. Dog b. Bovine c. Swine d. Sheep & goat

  1. Raised button ulcers in colonic mucosa of swine is the pathogenic lesion in

a. Theileriosis b. Hog cholera c. Swine fever d. All of the above

  1. Abortion causing zoonotic diseases

a. Brucellosis b. Leptospirosis c. a & b d. None

  1. Suitable age for primary vaccination against rabies is

a. 3 weeks b. 3 months c. 4 months d. 5 months

  1. Pruritus is symptom of following disease

a. Scrapie b. Pseudorabies c. Mange d. All of the above

  1. The proportion of diseased animals that die

a. Mortality b. Incidence c. Case fatality d. Morbidity

The study of disease in a small group of individuals with respect to factors that influence its occurrence in larger segment of population

a. Micro epidemiology b. Environmental epidemiology

c. Survey epidemiology d. Comparative epidemiology

  1. The amount of organism required to initiate infection indicates

a. Virulence b. Pathogenesity c. Susceptibility d. Infectivity

  1. The period between infection and maximum infectiousness is

a. Generation time b. Prepatent period c. Threshold level d. Eclipse

  1. Dogs that are affected with rabies are examples of

a. Convalescent carriers b. Incubatory carriers c. Latent carriers d. None


The disease that occurs with a predictable regularity with minor fluctuations in its frequency, then such occurrence is called

a. Sporadic b. Endemic c. Pandemic d. Epidemic

  1. The distribution of cases of a disease based on times of its occurrences is called

a. Demography b. Spatial distribution c. Temporal distributiond.


  1. Transmission of an infection by doctor during surgical or medical practice is called

a. Vertical transmission b. Iatorogenic transmission

c. Transtadial transmission d. Aerial transmission

  1. Study of animals and plants in relation to habit and habitats is called

a. Ecology b. Biome c. Epornitics d. Zoonosis

  1. Measures to make regional extinction of an infectious agent is called

a. Control b. Eradication c. Tertiary prevention d. Niche filling

Following are the causes of failure of the treatment of helminth infection in animlas

Migrating larvae are inaccessible

Failure to adequately protect young animals

Use of insufficient dose or incorrect anthelmintic

All of the above

Clinically following symptoms will be observed in a sheep suffering from acute fascioliasis

Anaemia, weakness, pain on palpation of abdomen, loss of appetite

Weight loss, submandibular oedema, anaemia

c. Loss of weight, diarrhea, anaemia d. All of the above

  1. Following snails act as an intermediate host in amphistomiasis in cattle

a. Lymnaeid snails b. Planorbid snails c. a and b d. None

  1. Following worm of horse is responsible for colic symptoms

a. Habronema muscae b. Tichostrongylus axe c. Strongylus vulgaris d. All

  1. Tape worm infestation can be treated with the following drug

a. Fenbendazole @ 5 mg/kg b.wt. b. Albendazole @ 5 mg/kg b.wt.

c. Praziquantal @ 5 mg/kg b.wt. d. All of the above

  1. Visceral larva migrans is caused by the migration of larvae of

a. Toxocara canis b. Dictyocaulus viviparous c. Onchocera gibroni d. None

  1. Toxoplasmosis is a contagious disease of

a. Cattle, pigs, sheep and goats b. Sheep and goats

c. Only cats d. All the species including human being


  1. Anaplasma marginale is observed in

a. Erythrocytes b. Leucocytes c. Muscle cells d. None

Hypoalbuminia observed in fascioliosis is due to

Reduced albumin levels due to renal loss

Reduced albumin synthesis due to liver damage

c. Deficiency of proteins in diet d. None of the above

  1. Following helminth can be prevented by prophylactic vaccination

a. Fasciola hepatica b. Paramphistomum c. Dictyocaulus viviparous d. None

  1. Berenil is the drug of choice for

a. Babesiosis b. Anaplasmosis c. Theileriosis d. None

  1. Pimply gut is caused by

a. Oesophagostomum b. Bunostomum c. Haemonchus d. None

  1. The cystic intermediate stage of Echinococcus granulosus is found in

a. Sheep b. Goat c. Cattle d. All

  1. The eggs of the Demodex canis are

a. Round b. Spindle shaped c. Oval shaped d.Variable in shape

  1. Tape worms of dogs found in

a. Stomach b. Small intestine c. Large intestine d. None

  1. Gid in goat is caused by

a. Coenurus cerebralis b. Cysticercus pisiformis c. Coenurus serialis d. None

  1. Anthelmintic resistance is seen in

a. Haemonchus spp b. Ascaris spp c. Amphistomes d. Tape worm

  1. Etiology of Verminous bronchitis is

a. Dictyocaulus spp b. Bunostomum spp c. Trichuris spp d. Stephanurus spp

  1. Intermediate host for fasciola hepatica is

a. Planorbid snails b. Lymnaeid snails c. a and b d. None

  1. Hydatid cyst is larval stage of

a. T.multiceps b. T.hydatidigena c. E.granulosus d. T.saginata

  1. ‘Clay-pipe stem’ fibrosis of liver is a pathognomonic lesion in

a. Amphistomiasis b. Fascioliais c. Ascariasis d. Schistosomiasis

  1. The drug of choice in moneiziasis is

a. Niclosamide b. Ivermectin c. Closantal d. All of the above

  1. Prenatal infection is common in

a. Ancylostomiasis b. Strongylosis c. Ascariasis d. a and c

  1. Haemonchosis is characterized by


a. Hypoprotenaemia b. Anaemia c. Oedema of lower jaw d. All

‘Milk spot’ liver is a pathognomonic lesion in

a. Amphistomiasis b. Fascioliais c. Ascariasis d. Schistosomiasis

  1. Severe pathogenesis in paramphistomiasis is caused by

a. Mature flukes b. Immature (migratory) flukes c. Ova d. All

  1. Morocco leather appearance of gastric mucosa is observed in

a. Stephanofilariosis b. Ostertagiasis c. Cooperiasis d. Trichostrongylosis

  1. Gastric granuloma in horses is caused due to

a. Habronema majus b. Drachia megastoma c. Habronema muscae d. All

  1. Ivermectin is highly effective in treatment of

a. Ascariasis in pigs b. Stephanofilarisis in buffaloes

c. External & internal parasites d. All of the above

  1. Pipe stem faeces is caused by

a. Babesia bigemina b. Babesia cabelli c. Babesia divergens d. Babesia bovis

  1. Cystic intermediate stage of Echinococcus granulosus is found in

a. Sheep b. Goat c. Cattle d. All of the above

The immature stage of following liver flukes is continuously migrates in the liver parenchyma so severely without causing encapsulation in such a way that only one or two flukes can kill a sheep

a. Fasciola gigantica b. Fasciola hepatica

c. Dicrocoelium dendriticum d. Fascioloides magna

  1. Sedimentation and decanting technique is used to diagnosis of acute amphistomiasis

based on the identification of following stage of the parasite’s life cycle in the faeces

a. Eggs b. Matured flukes c. Immature flukes d. Miracedium

  1. ‘Thumps’ is a characteristic clinical sign noticed in ascariasis infestation of

a. Piglets b. Foals c. Calves d. Pups

  1. The following condition is sequalae of canine spirocercosis

a. Pulmonary emphysema b. Pulmonary oestoarthropathy

c. Pneumonia d. Oestoporosis

  1. Adult haemonchus contortus worms inhabit

a. Rumen b. Small intestine c. Abomasum d. Large intestine

  1. Lung worm infestation in horse is caused by

a. Dictyocaulus arnfieldi b. Dictyocaulus filaria

c. Prostrongylus rufescens d. Dictyocaulus eckerti

Thin sow syndrome is seen in pigs affected with 126

a. Ascaris suum b. Toxoplasma gondii

c. Metastrongylus apri d. Oesophagostomum dentatum

  1. Ear sore in Indian buffalo

a. Stephanofilaria stelesi b. Stephanofilaria zaheri

c. Stephanofilaria assamnensis d. Stephanofilaria boomkeri

  1. Intermediate host for Dipylidium caninum is

a. Coprophagus beetle b. Musca Spp.

c. Ctenocephalides canis d. Culex Spp.

  1. The species of Theileria recorded in goats is

a. T. annulata b. T. parva c. T. hirci d. T. mutans

  1. In Toxoplasmosis, abortion and still births is common in

a. Sheep b. Cattle c. Horse d. Buffalo

  1. Follicular mange in dog is caused by

a. Sarcoptes spp b. Psorptes spp c. Demodex spp d. Notoedres spp

  1. Black head disease of poultry is caused by

a. Heterakis gallinarum b. Histomonas meleagridis

c. Emeria acervulina d. Lipeurus caponis

  1. Lymph node biopsy stained smear is examined for the diagnosis of

a. Anaplasmosis b. Toxoplasmosis c. Theileriosis d. Babesiosis

  1. Dourine is characterized by

a. Lymph node enlargement b. Conjunctivitis

c. Haemoglobinuria d. Dollar spots

  1. Babesiosis is more common in

a. Exotic cattle b. Indigenous cattle c. Buffaloes d. None

  1. Method of transmission of lung worm infestation

a. Ingestion of ova b. Ingestion of 3rd stage larva

c. Ingestion of embryo d. All of the above

  1. Important clinical signs in equine strongylosis

a. Arteritis b. Aanemia c. Colic d. All of the above

  1. The following are blood sucking nematodes

a. Strongylus vulgaris b. Haemonchus contortus c. Ascaris suum d. a and b

  1. Clinical findings in coenurosis

a. Blindness b. Muscular tremors c. Staggering gait d. All

  1. Intermandibular oedema is common finding in

a. Paramphistomosis b. Fasciolosis c. Haemonchosis d. All of the above


  1. The stage of strongylus vulgaris is highly pathogenic is

a. Adult b. Larvae c. Embronated ova d. None

  1. The shape of schistosoma nasale ovum is

a. Planquim b. Nepoleon hat c. Oval d. Elliptical

  1. Raksha vac-T is vaccine for

a. Babesia b. Theileria c. Toxoplasma d. Trypanosoma

  1. Quinapyramine salts are used for the treatment of

a. Strongylosis b. Theileriasis c. Trypanosomiasis d. Anaplasmosis

  1. Prenatal infection in pups can occur due to

a. Hookworm b. Tapeworm c. Toxocara d. Coccidia

  1. Obstructive jaundice may be seen in infestation of

a. Liver flukes b. Hook worms c. Schistosomes d. Strongyles

  1. Koch blue bodies in theileria infection can be demonstrated by

a. Liver biopsy b. Lymphnode biopsy

c. Wet mount smear d. Blood smear examination

  1. Thrombocytopaenia is the persistent character of

a. Babesiosis b. Ehrlichiosis c. Leptospirosis d. Theileriosis

1 d 21 a 41 c 61 a 81 d 101 d

2 b 22 c 42 a 62 a 82 d 102 d

3 b 23 b 43 d 63 d 83 c 103 b

4 c 24 c 44 a 64 b 84 a 104 b

5 a 25 b 45 b 65 b 85 b 105 b

6 b 26 d 46 b 66 a 86 c 106 c

7 d 27 c 47 c 67 a 87 a 107 c

8 c 28 b 48 b 68 a 88 d 108 a

9 a 29 b 49 a 69 b 89 b 109 b

10 d 30 c 50 b 70 c 90 c 110 b

11 a 31 c 51 c 71 b 91 c

12 d 32 d 52 a 72 a 92 a

13 c 33 b 53 b 73 d 93 c

14 c 34 d 54 c 74 d 94 b

15 b 35 b 55 c 75 c 95 c

16 d 36 c 56 a 76 b 96 d

17 a 37 b 57 d 77 b 97 a

18 c 38 c 58 a 78 b 98 b

19 c 39 b 59 b 79 d 99 d

20 a 40 d 60 c 80 c 100 d

Leave a Comment