Questions

Lesson#1

 

  1. ‘Tall R’ wave in ECG denotes

a. Bilateral ventricular enlargement b. Left ventricular enlargement

c. Bilateral atrial enlargement d. Right ventricular enlargement

  1. Tigroid heart is pathognomonic lesion in

a. FMD b. Rinder pest c. Bluetongue d. PPR

  1. Haemoptysis means presence of blood in

a. urine b. sputum c. vomitus d. stools

  1. Lactation tetany in cattle is due to

a. hypoglycemia b. hypomagnesaemia c. hypocalcemia d. hypophosphataemia

  1. Iron deficiency anaemia is more common in

a. Calves b. Lambs c. Piglets d. Puppies

  1. Hydrocyanic acid (HCN) poisoning is results in

a. Anoxic anoxia b. Anaemic anoxia c. Histotoxic anoxia d. Stagnant anoxia

  1. The antidote for Organophosphate poisoning is

a. Atropine sulphate with oximes b. Calcium borogluconate

c. Methylene blue d. Sodium thiosulphate

  1. Significant amount of delta bilirubin in plasma suggests

a. Acute hepatitis b. Heaptic necrosis c. Cholestasis d. Cirrhosis

  1. Which of the following Apex body regulates Prevention of cruelty in India?

a. PETA b. WSPA c. SPCA d. AWBI

  1. Goose stepping in pigs is characteristic sign of

a. Thiamin deficiency b. Calcium deficiency

c. Pantothenic acid deficiency d. Phosphorus deficiency

  1. Peat scours in caves is due to deficiency of

a. Calcium b. Selenium and Vit. E c. Copper d. Cobalt

  1. Eclampsia in mares is caused by
  2. Which of the following is having high therapeutic value in gastric ulcers of dogs?

a. Hypoproteinemia b. Hypophosphatemia c. Hypomagnesemia d. Hypocalcemia

a. Sucralfate b. H1 blockers c. Cisapride d.

Metoclopramide

The most common cause of urolithiasis in canines is 113

a. Weddelite uroliths b. Xanthin uroliths

c. Hydroxyapatite uroliths d. Struvite uroliths

  1. Which of the following is a antiketogenic volatile fatty acid for ruminanats

a. Acetic acid b. Butyric acid c. Propionic acid d. Succinic acid

  1. Which of the following has high therapeutic index in acute renal failure?

a. Vasopressin b. Frussemide c. Spironolactones d. Dopamine

  1. Polioencephalomalacia is due to deficiency of

a. Riboflavin b. Thiamin c. Niacin d. cyanocobalamine

  1. Inflammatory Bowel Disease in dogs is suspected to be due

a. Defective immunoregulation b. Dietary allergens

c. Eosinophillic gastroenteritis d. All of the above

  1. Papple shaped abdomen is characteristic of

a. Traumatic reticuloperitonotis b. Abaomasal displacement

c. Omasal impaction d. Vagal indigestion

  1. Acute Bovine Pulmonary Emphysema and Edema (ABPEE) is due to

a. Dietary high L-tryptophan b. Lung worm infestation

c. Prolonged transit d. Mycotoxins

  1. Glomerulonephritis in canines is essentially

a. Sequalae of nephroliths b. Auto-immune disease

c. Sequalae of interstitial nephritis d. None of the above

  1. Ovine ketosis is also referred as

a. Pregnancy toxemia b. Twin lamb disease

c. Acetonemia of sheep d. All of the above

  1. Barker foal syndrome is due to

a. Antenatal or postnatal hypoxia b. Isoimmune hemolytic anaemia

c. Clostridial infection d. Premature foaling

  1. Bulk Tank Milk Somatic Cell Count suggestive of mastitis in the herd is

a. 2,00,000/ml b. 2,50,000/ml c. 3,00,000/ml d. 1,50,000/ml

  1. Persistent ruminal tympany, bradycardia and displaced heart sounds in cattle suggests

a. Traumatic Pericarditis b. Traumatic reticulitis

c. Diaphramatic hernia d. Traumatic reticulo-peritonitis

  1. Palliative treatment of a disease means

a. To prolong the life b. Specific therapy

c. Eliminate etiology d. Symptomatic therapy

  1. Pollakyuria means

114

a. Excessive urination b. Frequent painful urination

c. Constant dribbling of urine d. Decreased output of urine

  1. Stranguria means

a. Frequent painful urination b. Urination with abnormal constituents

c. Constant dribbling of urine d. Decreased output of urine

  1. Dysuria means

a. frequent painful urination b. Difficulty in urination

c. Constant dribbling of urine d. No urination

  1. Azotemia means

a. Excessive accumulation of NPN b. Uraemia

c. Both a & b d. Decreased levels of NPN

  1. Stagnant hypoxia is seen in

a. HCN poisoning b. Nitrite poisoning

c. Congestive heart failure d. Lead poisoning

  1. Haematochezia means presence of blood

a. in vomitus b. in sputum c. in nasal discharge d. in faeces

  1. Paper crackling rales on auscultation is suggestive of

a. Pneumonia b. Bronchitis

c. Pulmonary emphysema d. Pulmonary oedema

  1. Hydrothorax is commonly seen in horses suffering from

a. Strangles b. African horse sickness

c. Equine influenza d. Equine infectious anaemia

  1. Acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema (ABPPE) is caused by

a. Excessive feeding of silage b. Excessive feeding of lush greens

c. Feeding of moldy hay d. Excessive feeding of roughages

  1. Dalmatian breed of dogs have inherent tendency to develop

a. Calcium oxalate uroliths b. Triple phosphate uroliths

c. Ammonium urate uroliths d. struvite uroliths

  1. Systolic and diastolic murmur on auscultation is suggestive of

a. Myocarditis b. Pericarditis

c. Patent ductus arteriosus c. Vegetative endocarditis

  1. Which of the following is considered a Standard Lead for ECG recording

a. Lead I b. Lead II c. Lead III d. None

  1. In general, colloidal osmotic pressure at arterial end is

a. 45 mm of Hg b. 15 mm of Hg c. 30 mm of Hg d. None

115

  1. Diaphragmatic hernia is more common in

a. Cows b. Buffaloes c. Bullocks d. Sheep

  1. Case fatality rate is as high as 50 per cent in

a. Type I abomasal ulcers b. Type II abomasal ulcers

c. Type III abomasal ulcers d. Type IV abomasal ulcers

  1. Increased frequency, tenesmus with presence of abundant mucus in faeces is

suggestive of

a. Small bowel diarrhea b. Large bowel diarrhea

c. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency d. None of the above

  1. Which among the following is an osmotic diuretic

a. Frussemide b. Spironolactones c. Dopamine d. Mannitol

  1. Which of the following is a respiratory stimulant

a. Theophylline b. Guaifenesin c. Bromohexine d. Doxapram

  1. Which of the following is opioid analgesic

a. Indomethacin b. Flunixin meglumine c. Acetaminophen d. Pentazocine

  1. Which of the following is a promising ACE inhibitor for dilated cardio-myopathy in

dogs

a. Digitalis b. Amiodipine besylate c. Atenolol d.Enalapril maleate

  1. Effective thyroxine dose for canine hypothyroidism is

a. 0.2 – 0.4 mg/kg b. 0.02 -0.04 mg/kg c. 0.002 – 0.004mg/kg d. 2 – 4 mg/kg

  1. Diabetic cataract is due to accumulation of which of the following in lens capsule

a. Insulin b. Sorbitol c. Isopropanol d. Ketoacids

Trypsin like immunoreactivity (TLI) assay in dogs is highly sensitive and specific test for

a. Inflammatory Bowel Disease b. Acute Pancreatitis

c. Exocrine pancreatic insuffiency d. Large bowel disease

  1. Which of the following is used as hyperosmotic cathartic to cleanse the bowel

a. Bisacodyl b. Psyllium husk c. Docusate sodium d. Lactulose

  1. Metabolic acidosis can occur in

a. Severe Diarrhoea b. Intestinal obstruction

c. Impactive colic d. All of the above

  1. ‘Gag reflex test’ is performed to know the functional ability of

a. Glossopharyngeal nerve b. Vestibulocochlear nerve

c. Hypoglossal nerve d. Trigeminal nerve

Water-hammer pulse is pathognomonic of 116

a. Interventrucular septal defect b. Patent ductus arteriosus

c. Dilated cardiomyopathy d. Aortic incompetence

  1. Which of the following is termed as diastolic sound

a. First heart sound b. Second heart sound

c. Third heart sound d. Fourth heart sound

  1. ‘P’ wave in ECG denotes

a. Atrial repolarization b. Ventricular depolarization

c. Atrial depolarization d. Ventricular repolarization

  1. Prognosis of a disease means knowing

a. the cause of disease b. pattern of disease

c. outcome of disease d. prevention of disease

  1. Haemotochezia means presence of blood in

a. urine b. sputum c. vomitus d. stools

  1. Lactation tetany in mares is due to

a. hypoglycemia b. hypomagnesaemia

c. hypocalcemia c. hypophosphataemia

  1. Metabolic acidosis is suggestive of

a. High plasma bicarbonate b. Low carbonic acid

c. Low plasma bicarbonate d. High plasma phosphate

  1. Hypotonic dehydration means

a. Loss of fluid without sodium b. Loss fluid only

c. Loss of sodium without much fluid d. Loss of fluid with sodium

  1. Iron deficiency anaemia is

a. Normocytic normochromic b. Normocytic hypochromic

c. Microcytic hypochromic c. Macrocytic hypochromic

  1. Death in hydrocyanic acid poisoning is due to

a. Anoxic anoxia b. Anaemic anoxia c. Histotoxic anoxia d. Stagnant anoxia

  1. The antidote for Nitrite poisoning is

a. Atropine sulphate b. Pralidoxime c. Methylene blue d.Calcium versanate

  1. Adipocere means

a. Accumulation of fat b. Postmortem change

c. Tumor of adipose tissue d. Antemortem change

  1. The signs of Milk fever are observed when blood calcium level falls below

a. 8 mg/dl b. 10 mg/dl c. 5.5 mg/dl d. 6.5 mg/dl

Which of the following has renal vaso-dialotory effect in acute renal failure? 117

a. Vasopressin b. Frussemide c. Spironolactones d. Dopamine

  1. Curled toe paralysis in chicks is due to deficiency of

a. Riboflavin b. Thiamin c. Niacin d. cyanocobalamine

  1. Which of the following is having good therapeutic value in frothy bloat?

a. Antizymotics b. Non-ionic surfactants c. Mineral oils d. All

  1. Free gas bloat is also known as

a. Pasture bloat b. Primary tympany c. Frothy bloat d. Secondary Tympany

  1. Which of the following is the important cause of Abomasal displacement

a. Ruminal impaction b. Atony of omaso-abomasal spincture

c. Atony of abomasum d. Omsal impaction

  1. Mad cow disease is

a. Spongiform encephalopathy b. Encephalomalacia

c. Sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis d. All of the above

  1. Which of the following is important test to detect sub-clinical mastitis

a. NAGase activity b. Somatic cell count

c. Electrical conductivity d. All of the above

  1. Which of the following is having mucokinetic and bronchodilatory effect

a. Frussemide b. Theophylline

c. Clenbuterol d. Bromohexine

  1. Which of the following is the marker of early stages of hepatic dysfunction in cattle

a. Gamma-glutamyltransferase b. Alkaline phosphatase

c. Asparate aminotransferase d. Sorbitol dehydrogenase

  1. Moderate leucocytosis, neutrophilia with a left shift is suggestive of

a. Acute local peritonitis b. Chronic local peritonitis

c. Acute diffused peritonitis d. None of the above

  1. Complete loss of ability to absorb immunoglobulins in colostrum occur by

a. 6 – 8 hours after birth b. 8-12 hours after birth

c. 12-20 hours after birth d. 24-36 hours after birth

  1. The most important cause of allotriophagia in animals is

a. Calcium deficiency b. Protein deficiency

c. Phosphorus deficiency d. Vit.D deficiency

  1. Puerperal tetany in bitches is caused by

a. Hypoglycemia b. Hypocalcemia

c. Hypomagnesemia d. Hypocalcemia and hypoglycemia

Important biochemical change in Baby Pig disease is 118

a. Hypothermia b. Hypoglycemia c. Hypocalcemia d. Anaemia

  1. Enzootic ataxia in lambs is due to deficiency of

a. Copper b. Selenium & Vit. E c. Zinc d. Vit. A

  1. Complicated Diabetes mellitus is confirmed by presence of

a. Glycosuria b. Ketonuria

c. Glycosuria with Ketonuria d. Proteinuria

  1. Crazy chick disease is due to deficiency of

a. Vit. A b. Vit. K c. Vit. C d. Vit. E

  1. Hypotonic dehydration is having

a. Hypokalemia b. Hyponatraemia c. Hypochloremia d. Hypernatremia

  1. Which of the following is used as sustained release antifoaming drug for pasture bloat

a. Silica in dimethicon b. Turpentine

c. Monensin d. Aluminium hydroxide

  1. Which of the following is an uncommon sequel of traumatic reticulo-peritonitis

a. Diaphragmatic hernia b. Diffused peritonitis

c. Rupture of left gastroepiploic artery d. Congestive heart failure

  1. The case fatality rate in abomasal ulcers in dairy cattle is 100 percent in

a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Type 3 d. Type 2 & 4

  1. Which of the following is an excellent intracranial decompressant?

a. Frussemide b. Spironolactone

c. Mannitol d. Mannitol with corticosteroid

  1. Parakeratosis is caused by

a. Vit. A deficiency b. Vit. E deficiency

c. Zinc deficiency d. Manganese deficiency

  1. Ovine ketosis is more common during

a. Late gestation b. one week post lambing

c. Four weeks post-lambing d. immediately after lambing

  1. Presence of Formiminoglutamic acid in urine is confirmation of

a. Copper deficiency b. Selenium deficiency

c. Cobalt deficiency d. Calcium deficiency

1 a 26 a 51 d 76 d

2 a 27 b 52 c 77 c

3 b 28 b 53 a 78 d

4 b 29 b 54 c 79 b

5 c 30 c 55 c 80 a

6 c 31 c 56 c 81 c

7 a 32 d 57 d 82 d

8 c 33 c 58 c 83 d

9 d 34 b 59 c 84 c

10 c 35 b 60 d 85 c

11 b 36 c 61 c 86 d

12 d 37 c 62 c 87 d

13 a 38 b 63 c 88 c

14 d 39 c 64 b 89 a

15 c 40 b 65 c 90 c

16 d 41 d 66 d

17 b 42 b 67 a

18 d 43 d 68 d

19 d 44 d 69 d

20 a 45 d 70 c

21 b 46 d 71 a

22 d 47 b 72 d

23 a 48 b 73 c

24 c 49 c 74 a

25 c 50 d 75 a

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